How am I confusing your notion of a distinct Palestinian identity from before the word "Palestinian" even existed in modern Arabic with the idea of DNA proving Palestinian descent from ancient times when you're just now bringing up DNA and I certainly didn't mention it before? But if you want to go there, DNA shows Palestinians and Jews both have Levantine genetic origins.

I'm not questioning the importance of proportionality when dividing something. I'm questioning how your arbitrary decision to use the state of land ownership as it stood in 1947 as the standard by which to assess proportionality, especially considering land ownership in 1947 Palestine was artificially molded by discriminatory laws.

If your problem with disproportionate division of land is that it's unfair, the means of acquisition of that land that led up to the state of its division in 1947 was likewise unfair.

Your insistence on "proportional division" based on the 1947 state of land division is discretional as hell, and you know it.